A 72-year-old woman presents with palpitations and dizziness. Her ECG shows irregularly irregular rhythm with no discernible P waves and a ventricular rate of 140 bpm. She has a history of hypertension and diabetes. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
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BRate control with intravenous beta-blocker or calcium channel blocker
CImmediate electrical cardioversion
DAmiodarone for rhythm control
✓ Correct answer: B. Rate control with intravenous beta-blocker or calcium channel blockerThe patient has atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. In hemodynamically stable patients, the initial management is rate control with intravenous beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers. Immediate cardioversion is reserved for hemodynamically unstable patients.
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