A 50-year-old man with diabetes and hypertension presents with chest pain. His ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?

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Multiple choice — select the best answer

ALeft anterior descending artery
BLeft circumflex artery
CLeft main coronary artery
DRight coronary artery

✓ Correct answer: D. Right coronary artery ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF indicates an inferior wall myocardial infarction, which is most commonly caused by occlusion of the right coronary artery. This pattern represents the classic ECG findings of an inferior STEMI.

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A 50-year-old man with diabetes and hypertension presents with chest pain. His ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?

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