TheoryFree FNP-BC Nurse Prac Exam Prep Practice Test
Take a free FNP-BC Nurse Prac Exam Prep practice test for 2026 with questions, answers, explanations, PDF download and timed mock exam links.
FNP-BC Nurse Prac Exam Prep Questions
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Q1A 50-year-old female patient presented to her primary care office with progressive hoarseness and difficulty swallowing over the past few months. She also reported a sensation of a lump in her throat and unintended weight loss. During the physical exam, the Nurse Practitioner (NP) noted the presence of hard lymphadenopathy in the cervical nodes and a firm mass on palpation of the thyroid gland. Based on these findings, which of the following steps is the best choice for the NP to make regarding the treatment and management of this patient?
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✓ Correct answer: Refer to an oncologist for biopsy and further evaluation.
The correct answer: Refer to an oncologist for biopsy and further evaluation. The presence of hard lymphadenopathy and a firm mass in the thyroid gland is highly suspicious for thyroid malignancy. Progressive hoarseness, difficulty swallowing, and unintended weight loss are symptoms often associated with thyroid cancer. It is crucial to refer the patient to an oncologist for a biopsy and further evaluation to determine the nature of the mass and appropriate treatment plan. Thyroid cancer can present with hoarseness, difficulty swallowing, and a palpable neck mass. Weight loss and hard lymphadenopathy in the cervical region also suggest a possible malignancy. Early referral to an oncologist can help in timely diagnosis and management, improving the patient's prognosis.
Q2Which population benefits the most from the application of a sling for management of a humeral shaft fracture?
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✓ Correct answer: Older patients
Answer: Older patients A humeral shaft fracture is a common injury, often resulting from falls or trauma. Management includes immobilization to allow for proper healing. While younger patients, including younger athletes, often benefit from surgical intervention or more active forms of rehabilitation, older patients benefit most from conservative management such as using a sling. This method reduces the risk of complications and is generally more suitable for older individuals due to slower healing processes and other comorbidities.
Q3A 65-year-old Hispanic male was diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and is being started on levodopa/carbidopa therapy. The patient wants to know for how long they will need to take this medication?
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✓ Correct answer: Indefinitely
Answer: Indefinitely Parkinson's disease is a chronic and progressive neurological disorder, characterized by tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia (slowed movement). Levodopa/carbidopa therapy is the most effective treatment for managing symptoms of Parkinson's disease, and patients typically need to continue this medication indefinitely to maintain symptom control. The dosage may need to be adjusted over time to manage fluctuations in symptom control, but discontinuing the medication is generally not an option as it will lead to a worsening of symptoms.
Q4A 55-year-old male patient presents for a follow-up visit after undergoing a prostatectomy for prostate cancer two years ago. He asks if he needs a PSA test today. His previous PSA levels were undetectable post-surgery. During the exam, you note he is otherwise healthy with no new symptoms. You explain to him that:
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✓ Correct answer: Regular PSA testing is recommended following a prostatectomy for prostate cancer, as it helps monitor for potential recurrence
Answer: Regular PSA testing is recommended following a prostatectomy for prostate cancer, as it helps monitor for potential recurrence. Per the American Urological Association (AUA) guidelines, men who have undergone a prostatectomy for prostate cancer should continue to have PSA tests at regular intervals. This is crucial for early detection of any signs of recurrence.
Q5A 35-year-old female construction worker visited the clinic two weeks ago with complaints of pain and swelling over the posterior aspect of the right elbow, limiting her ability to extend her elbow. After a thorough examination and aspiration of elbow fluid, a diagnosis of aseptic olecranon bursitis was made. She was advised to rest, apply ice, wear a compression bandage, and take NSAIDs regularly. She returns today with no improvement in her symptoms and denies any worsening. You decide to perform a therapeutic corticosteroid injection. Where should the therapeutic injection for the treatment of olecranon bursitis be administered?
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✓ Correct answer: Directly into the fluid-filled bursa from either the lateral or medial side
Directly into the fluid-filled bursa from either the lateral or medial side is the correct answer. Conservative management is typically indicated for the treatment of aseptic olecranon bursitis. In patients who do not experience improvement of symptoms after 2-4 weeks or who experience worsening of symptoms despite conservative management, an intrabursal corticosteroid injection is indicated. For injection using aseptic technique and after administering an anesthetic, the needle should be inserted directly into the fluid-filled bursa from either the lateral or medial side, depending on practitioner preference or ease of insertion. This is why it is termed an "intrabursal" injection. Injection of the subacromial bursa (not olecranon bursitis) should be completed at the area most tender or swollen to palpation with the needle perpendicular to the skin. Injection of the Achilles bursa (not olecranon bursitis) should be completed with the needle perpendicular to the calcaneus to the point of maximal tenderness, then slowly guided to the bone, and then withdrawn 2 to 3 mm to administer the injection.
Q6A 10-year-old child presents with white, scaly patches on the scalp, which have not improved with over-the-counter shampoos. Which intervention(s) will you include in your treatment plan?
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✓ Correct answer: Apply topical antifungal treatment and recommend selenium sulfide shampoo.
Answer: Apply topical antifungal treatment and recommend selenium sulfide shampoo. The white, scaly patches on the scalp are indicative of a fungal infection such as tinea capitis. Topical antifungal treatments, as well as medicated shampoos containing selenium sulfide, are effective in managing this condition. Oral antibiotics, benzoyl peroxide, and vitamin D supplements are not indicated for the treatment of tinea capitis.
Q7A 45-year-old patient presents with a sore throat and difficulty swallowing. Upon examination, you notice a swollen, red tonsil with white exudate on the right side. Based on the patient's history and clinical examination, you diagnose acute bacterial tonsillitis. What is the first-line treatment for this diagnosis?
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✓ Correct answer: Oral antibiotics, such as penicillin
Answer: Oral antibiotics, such as penicillin Acute bacterial tonsillitis is commonly caused by Group A Streptococcus (GAS). The first-line treatment is oral antibiotics, typically penicillin or amoxicillin, to eliminate the bacterial infection. While supportive treatments like warm salt water gargles can help alleviate symptoms, they are not considered primary treatments. Systemic corticosteroids and ENT referrals are reserved for severe or refractory cases.
Q8A 55-year-old male patient with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed medication to prevent further cardiac events. After several months, he reports new symptoms of muscle pain and weakness. Which of the following medications is most likely causing these symptoms?
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✓ Correct answer: Statins
Answer: Statins Statins are a common medication prescribed to reduce cholesterol levels and prevent cardiac events such as myocardial infarction (MI). A known side effect of statins is muscle pain and weakness, known as myopathy. This side effect can be bothersome enough to lead to non-compliance with the treatment. If myopathy is significant, the patient may benefit from a different lipid-lowering therapy. Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication commonly used for its blood-thinning properties but does not typically cause muscle pain. Beta-blockers are used to manage cardiac conditions such as hypertension and arrhythmias but also do not commonly cause muscle pain. ACE inhibitors are used to treat hypertension and heart failure but are more likely to cause a dry cough or hyperkalemia.
Q9A patient with diabetes and peripheral arterial disease presents with a non-healing foot ulcer despite regular wound care. What is the most appropriate intervention to include in the treatment plan for this patient?
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✓ Correct answer: Start therapy with cilostazol 100 mg twice daily
Answer: Start therapy with cilostazol 100 mg twice daily Cilostazol is a medication that improves blood flow by inhibiting platelet aggregation and dilating blood vessels. It is commonly used to treat intermittent claudication in peripheral arterial disease. When used in conjunction with regular wound care, cilostazol can help improve healing in non-healing foot ulcers by enhancing blood flow. Cilostazol is more effective at a dose of 100 mg twice daily compared to lower doses or using wound care alone.
Q10A 28-year-old pregnant patient comes to the clinic seeking a new prescription for sertraline (Zoloft). Which new information would indicate a need to modify the patient's treatment plan?
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✓ Correct answer: A new diagnosis of bipolar disorder
Answer: A new diagnosis of bipolar disorder Using sertraline (Zoloft), which is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), in a patient with bipolar disorder can precipitate manic or hypomanic episodes. It's crucial to identify and manage bipolar disorder appropriately before prescribing SSRIs. Mild nausea is a common side effect of sertraline, but it usually resolves within a few weeks of starting the medication. A history of a panic attack is not a contraindication for using sertraline; in fact, it is often prescribed for panic disorders. Sertraline has no contraindicated interactions with propranolol, a beta-blocker typically used to manage hypertension and anxiety.
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