TheoryFNP-BC Nurse Prac Exam Prep Study Guide
Study for the FNP-BC Nurse Prac Exam Prep with exam topics, practice questions, a free PDF, video walkthrough and timed mock exam links.
How to study for FNP-BC Nurse Prac Exam Prep
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Topics to review
- Safe and effective care environment
- Health promotion and maintenance
- Psychosocial and physiological integrity
- Pharmacology, infection control and patient safety
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Q1A 50-year-old female patient presented to her primary care office with progressive hoarseness and difficulty swallowing over the past few months. She also reported a sensation of a lump in her throat and unintended weight loss. During the physical exam, the Nurse Practitioner (NP) noted the presence of hard lymphadenopathy in the cervical nodes and a firm mass on palpation of the thyroid gland. Based on these findings, which of the following steps is the best choice for the NP to make regarding the treatment and management of this patient?
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✓ Correct answer: Refer to an oncologist for biopsy and further evaluation.
The correct answer: Refer to an oncologist for biopsy and further evaluation. The presence of hard lymphadenopathy and a firm mass in the thyroid gland is highly suspicious for thyroid malignancy. Progressive hoarseness, difficulty swallowing, and unintended weight loss are symptoms often associated with thyroid cancer. It is crucial to refer the patient to an oncologist for a biopsy and further evaluation to determine the nature of the mass and appropriate treatment plan. Thyroid cancer can present with hoarseness, difficulty swallowing, and a palpable neck mass. Weight loss and hard lymphadenopathy in the cervical region also suggest a possible malignancy. Early referral to an oncologist can help in timely diagnosis and management, improving the patient's prognosis.
Q2Which population benefits the most from the application of a sling for management of a humeral shaft fracture?
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✓ Correct answer: Older patients
Answer: Older patients A humeral shaft fracture is a common injury, often resulting from falls or trauma. Management includes immobilization to allow for proper healing. While younger patients, including younger athletes, often benefit from surgical intervention or more active forms of rehabilitation, older patients benefit most from conservative management such as using a sling. This method reduces the risk of complications and is generally more suitable for older individuals due to slower healing processes and other comorbidities.
Q3A 65-year-old Hispanic male was diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and is being started on levodopa/carbidopa therapy. The patient wants to know for how long they will need to take this medication?
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✓ Correct answer: Indefinitely
Answer: Indefinitely Parkinson's disease is a chronic and progressive neurological disorder, characterized by tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia (slowed movement). Levodopa/carbidopa therapy is the most effective treatment for managing symptoms of Parkinson's disease, and patients typically need to continue this medication indefinitely to maintain symptom control. The dosage may need to be adjusted over time to manage fluctuations in symptom control, but discontinuing the medication is generally not an option as it will lead to a worsening of symptoms.
Q4A 55-year-old male patient presents for a follow-up visit after undergoing a prostatectomy for prostate cancer two years ago. He asks if he needs a PSA test today. His previous PSA levels were undetectable post-surgery. During the exam, you note he is otherwise healthy with no new symptoms. You explain to him that:
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✓ Correct answer: Regular PSA testing is recommended following a prostatectomy for prostate cancer, as it helps monitor for potential recurrence
Answer: Regular PSA testing is recommended following a prostatectomy for prostate cancer, as it helps monitor for potential recurrence. Per the American Urological Association (AUA) guidelines, men who have undergone a prostatectomy for prostate cancer should continue to have PSA tests at regular intervals. This is crucial for early detection of any signs of recurrence.
Q5A 35-year-old female construction worker visited the clinic two weeks ago with complaints of pain and swelling over the posterior aspect of the right elbow, limiting her ability to extend her elbow. After a thorough examination and aspiration of elbow fluid, a diagnosis of aseptic olecranon bursitis was made. She was advised to rest, apply ice, wear a compression bandage, and take NSAIDs regularly. She returns today with no improvement in her symptoms and denies any worsening. You decide to perform a therapeutic corticosteroid injection. Where should the therapeutic injection for the treatment of olecranon bursitis be administered?
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✓ Correct answer: Directly into the fluid-filled bursa from either the lateral or medial side
Directly into the fluid-filled bursa from either the lateral or medial side is the correct answer. Conservative management is typically indicated for the treatment of aseptic olecranon bursitis. In patients who do not experience improvement of symptoms after 2-4 weeks or who experience worsening of symptoms despite conservative management, an intrabursal corticosteroid injection is indicated. For injection using aseptic technique and after administering an anesthetic, the needle should be inserted directly into the fluid-filled bursa from either the lateral or medial side, depending on practitioner preference or ease of insertion. This is why it is termed an "intrabursal" injection. Injection of the subacromial bursa (not olecranon bursitis) should be completed at the area most tender or swollen to palpation with the needle perpendicular to the skin. Injection of the Achilles bursa (not olecranon bursitis) should be completed with the needle perpendicular to the calcaneus to the point of maximal tenderness, then slowly guided to the bone, and then withdrawn 2 to 3 mm to administer the injection.
Q6A 10-year-old child presents with white, scaly patches on the scalp, which have not improved with over-the-counter shampoos. Which intervention(s) will you include in your treatment plan?
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✓ Correct answer: Apply topical antifungal treatment and recommend selenium sulfide shampoo.
Answer: Apply topical antifungal treatment and recommend selenium sulfide shampoo. The white, scaly patches on the scalp are indicative of a fungal infection such as tinea capitis. Topical antifungal treatments, as well as medicated shampoos containing selenium sulfide, are effective in managing this condition. Oral antibiotics, benzoyl peroxide, and vitamin D supplements are not indicated for the treatment of tinea capitis.
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