Practice test · Urologic Associate Exam Prep

Free Urologic Associate Exam Prep Practice Test

Take a free Urologic Associate Exam Prep practice test for 2026 with questions, answers, explanations, PDF download and timed mock exam links.

Free sample · Urologic Associate Exam PrepQ1
A 6-month-old male infant presents for a well-child check. Examination reveals a palpable right testis in the inguinal canal that cannot be manipulated into the scrotum. The left testis is normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct — D. The correct answer is to refer to pediatric urology. Spontaneous descent of undescended testes is rare after 6 months of age. Guidelines recommend referral at this age to facilitate timely surgical correction (orchiopexy), typically performed between 6 and 18 months to preserve fertility and monitor for malignancy risk. Distractor 1 is incorrect because waiting until 1 year delays necessary planning for surgery. Distractor 2 is incorrect because hormonal therapy is not a standard first-line treatment for anatomical cryptorchidism. Distractor 3 is wrong because imaging is generally not indicated for palpable testes before referral.
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Urologic Associate Exam Prep Questions

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  1. Q1A 6-month-old male infant presents for a well-child check. Examination reveals a palpable right testis in the inguinal canal that cannot be manipulated into the scrotum. The left testis is normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

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    ✓ Correct answer: Refer to pediatric urology

    The correct answer is to refer to pediatric urology. Spontaneous descent of undescended testes is rare after 6 months of age. Guidelines recommend referral at this age to facilitate timely surgical correction (orchiopexy), typically performed between 6 and 18 months to preserve fertility and monitor for malignancy risk. Distractor 1 is incorrect because waiting until 1 year delays necessary planning for surgery. Distractor 2 is incorrect because hormonal therapy is not a standard first-line treatment for anatomical cryptorchidism. Distractor 3 is wrong because imaging is generally not indicated for palpable testes before referral.

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  2. Q2A 3-year-old child presents with a firm, non-tender abdominal mass discovered by a parent during bathing. The child is hypertensive but otherwise asymptomatic. Which initial diagnostic step is prioritized to maximize patient safety?

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    ✓ Correct answer: Abdominal ultrasound

    The correct answer is abdominal ultrasound. This presentation is highly suspicious for Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma). Ultrasound is the safest first-line imaging modality to confirm the mass without radiation or invasion. Distractor 1 is incorrect because vigorous palpation can rupture the tumor and upstage the disease. Distractor 2 is incorrect because biopsy is generally contraindicated due to spill risk before surgical excision. Distractor 3 is inappropriate as it delays diagnosis of a potential malignancy. Distractor 4 is insufficient given the palpable mass and hypertension.

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  3. Q3A stable newborn male has a prenatal history of unilateral hydronephrosis. To ensure accurate assessment and minimize false negatives due to transient physiological oliguria, when should the postnatal renal ultrasound be obtained?

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    ✓ Correct answer: After 48 hours of life

    The correct answer is after 48 hours of life (often 48-72 hours or later). Newborns experience physiological dehydration and transient oliguria in the first 2 days, which can underestimate the degree of hydronephrosis. Imaging too early may yield a false-negative result. Distractor 1 is incorrect because immediate imaging is prone to this dehydration artifact. Distractor 2 is incorrect as waiting 4 weeks is too long for an initial postnatal evaluation of significant antenatal findings. Distractor 3 and 4 are incorrect because the timing is dictated by physiology, not discharge convenience or symptoms.

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  4. Q4During the newborn exam of a male infant, the nurse notes the urethral meatus is located on the ventral aspect of the penis and the prepuce is incompletely fused ventrally. Parents request circumcision before discharge. What is the appropriate response?

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    ✓ Correct answer: Defer circumcision

    The correct answer is to defer circumcision. The findings describe hypospadias. The foreskin (prepuce) is often essential for future surgical reconstruction of the urethra and should not be removed. Distractor 1 is incorrect because proceeding would remove tissue critical for repair. Distractor 2 refers to a specific device but is still contraindicated. Distractor 3 is irrelevant to the structural anomaly. Distractor 4 is incorrect because imaging is not the immediate priority; stopping the circumcision is.

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  5. Q5A 9-month-old febrile female infant requires a urine culture to rule out pyelonephritis. Which method of specimen collection provides the most reliable result for culture in this non-toilet-trained patient?

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    ✓ Correct answer: Catheterized specimen

    The correct answer is a catheterized specimen. For non-toilet-trained children, catheterization (or suprapubic aspiration) is required to avoid contamination from skin flora. Bag specimens have a high false-positive rate and are unacceptable for culture diagnosis of UTI. Distractor 1 is incorrect due to high contamination rates. Distractor 2 is not feasible for an infant who cannot void on command. Distractor 3 and 4 describe unreliable methods that mix urine with skin or fiber contaminants.

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  6. Q6An infant with a history of ureteropelvic junction (UPJ) obstruction has serial ultrasounds showing an increase in anteroposterior (AP) renal pelvic diameter from 12 mm to 25 mm over 3 months. Which study is indicated to assess functional drainage?

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    ✓ Correct answer: Diuretic renogram

    The correct answer is a diuretic renogram (e.g., MAG-3 scan). Worsening hydronephrosis (increasing AP diameter) requires functional assessment to determine if obstruction is significant enough to damage renal function. The renogram measures split function and drainage time. Distractor 1 is a reflux study, not primarily for obstruction. Distractor 2 exposes the child to high radiation and is not first-line for functional assessment. Distractor 3 is incorrect as the worsening trend mandates evaluation, not just observation. Distractor 4 is invasive and premature.

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  7. Q7A primary care provider is preparing to refer a 10-month-old boy with a nonpalpable undescended testis. They ask if an imaging study should be ordered first to locate the testis. Which response is consistent with best practice guidelines?

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    ✓ Correct answer: Imaging is not indicated

    The correct answer is that imaging is not indicated. Clinical guidelines recommend against ultrasound or other imaging for nonpalpable testes prior to referral because these studies have low sensitivity for intra-abdominal testes and a negative result does not change the need for surgical exploration/laparoscopy. Distractor 1 suggests an unnecessary and often misleading test. Distractor 2 involves radiation and sedation which are unjustified. Distractor 3 is invasive and not a screening tool. Distractor 4 is incorrect because imaging delays definitive management.

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  8. Q8Parents of a 7-year-old with primary nocturnal enuresis are seeking a "quick cure" medication. The child has normal daytime voiding. What is the recommended first-line intervention?

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    ✓ Correct answer: Alarm therapy

    The correct answer is alarm therapy (and behavioral modification). Enuresis alarms have the highest long-term cure rate and are the recommended first-line treatment for motivated families. Distractor 1 (desmopressin) provides symptom control but has high relapse rates upon discontinuation, making it second-line. Distractor 2 (imipramine) has a higher side effect profile. Distractor 3 (anticholinergics) is used for bladder overactivity, not isolated nocturnal enuresis. Distractor 4 is invasive and unnecessary for uncomplicated enuresis.

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  9. Q9A 4-year-old presents with a large, encapsulated renal mass consistent with Wilms tumor. The care team decides against a percutaneous biopsy before surgery. What is the primary rationale for avoiding biopsy in this context?

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    ✓ Correct answer: Risk of tumor spillage

    The correct answer is risk of tumor spillage. Rupture or spillage of a Wilms tumor (Stage III) significantly upstages the disease, requiring more aggressive chemotherapy and abdominal radiation. Therefore, in many protocols (especially North American), primary nephrectomy is preferred over biopsy for resectable masses. Distractor 1 is incorrect as tissue is usually abundant. Distractor 2 is not the primary surgical concern relative to staging. Distractor 3 is unrelated to the procedure's contraindication. Distractor 4 is incorrect as bleeding risk is manageable but spillage is the oncologic danger.

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  10. Q10A nurse is providing discharge instructions to parents of a 10-month-old boy who just underwent hypospadias repair. Which aspect of care should be included in the counseling?

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    ✓ Correct answer: Catheter or stent care

    Hypospadias repair commonly involves a urinary diversion (stent or catheter) to allow urethral healing. Parents require instruction on device management. Strict bed rest is unrealistic for infants, and tub baths are restricted. Manipulation of the surgical site is contraindicated.

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