TheorySSCP Security Exam Prep Practice Questions
Free SSCP Security Exam Prep practice questions with answers and plain-English explanations. Browse the PDF, video and online mock test.
SSCP Security Exam Prep Questions
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Q1In the context of incident response, reviewing an organization's data handling policies may be necessary to ensure that information is:
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✓ Correct answer: protected.
Answer: protected. Information needs to be: - Secure - Confidential - Available - Protected Reviewing policies helps ensure data handling practices align with legal requirements and industry standards to provide comprehensive data protection.
Q2At which stage in the incident response process does evidence collection occur?
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✓ Correct answer: Evidence Gathering
Answer: Evidence Gathering The incident response process includes the following stages: Preparation: Developing and implementing an incident response capability. Identification: Detecting and acknowledging the occurrence of an incident. Evidence Gathering: Collecting relevant data and securing evidence. Containment: Mitigating the spread and damage from the incident. Eradication: Removing the incident's cause and affected components. Recovery: Restoring normal operations and confirming system functionality. Lessons Learned: Documenting and analyzing the incident response to improve future preparedness.
Q3Which characteristic of virtualization technology may make it difficult for cybersecurity teams to trace and mitigate an attack?
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✓ Correct answer: Isolation
Answer: Isolation Certain attributes of virtualization technology that can complicate cybersecurity efforts include: Isolation: Virtual machines are often designed to be isolated from each other for security purposes. This isolation can make it challenging to trace the origin or path of an attack within a virtualized environment. Scalability: While virtualization allows for rapid scaling of resources, tracking and managing security across a swiftly changing environment can be complex. Compatibility: Differences in hypervisors and virtual machine configurations can create compatibility issues that hinder unified security protocols. Performance: The abstraction layers in virtualization can sometimes obscure performance issues that may be indicative of malicious activities.
Q4Which of the following attributes is NOT necessary for a thorough incident report?
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✓ Correct answer: Subjective
Answer: Subjective An effective incident report needs to be: Attribute Accurate Comprehensive Verifiable Timely Clear Although it is important to document observations during an incident, the report itself should be based on factual, objective information rather than subjective opinions. Including subjective data can lead to bias and may undermine the reliability of the report.
Q5Which type of disaster recovery site is the most cost-effective to set up?
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✓ Correct answer: Cold site
Answer: Cold site Hot sites are fully operational environments where all critical systems and processes are kept in sync with the primary site. These are the most expensive to maintain. Cold sites, on the other hand, are physical locations that only provide the infrastructure without any current data or systems running. They are the least costly to set up because they involve minimal upkeep. Warm sites offer a compromise, providing some infrastructure and data synchronization, making them moderately expensive. The term inactive site is not a recognized category in disaster recovery terminology.
Q6In the context of business continuity planning, which risk treatment strategy demands the HIGHEST risk tolerance?
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✓ Correct answer: Accept
Correct answer: Accept The risk treatment strategies in the context of business continuity planning are typically as follows: Strategy Description **Accept** Acknowledge the risk and do nothing about it, which requires the highest risk tolerance. **Transfer** Assign responsibility for a risk to another party, such as an insurance provider. **Mitigate** Take steps to reduce or eliminate the risk, such as implementing redundant systems or improving access controls. **Avoid** Cease the activity or disuse the system that introduces the risk.
Q7Which of the following risk management frameworks was developed by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)?
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✓ Correct answer: NIST RMF
Answer: NIST RMF The NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) is a comprehensive, flexible, risk-based approach developed by the National Institute of Standards and Technology for integrating security and risk management activities into the system development lifecycle. This helps organizations meet federal requirements for securing information systems. ISO 27005 is an international standard that provides guidelines for information security risk management. COBIT (Control Objectives for Information and Related Technologies) is a framework created by ISACA for IT management and governance. ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) focuses on aligning IT services with the needs of the business.
Q8Which type of analysis ensures that existing mitigation strategies remain effective when a new threat is identified?
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✓ Correct answer: Risk re-assessment
Risk re-assessment ensures that existing mitigation strategies are still effective when new threats are identified. Initial risk assessment is performed before mitigation strategies are applied. Risk aversion and threat validation are not standard terms in this context.
Q9Which of the following is NOT a phase in the NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF)?
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✓ Correct answer: Continuous improvement
Answer: Continuous improvement The NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) consists of six steps: Prepare, Categorize, Select, Implement, Assess, Authorize, and Monitor. Continuous improvement is not one of the phases in the RMF.
Q10How many phases are included in the NIST Risk Management Framework?
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✓ Correct answer: 6
Answer: 6 The NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) consists of 6 phases, which include: Categorize, Select, Implement, Assess, Authorize, and Monitor.
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