TheoryFP-C Flight Paramedic Prep Practice Questions
Free FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep practice questions with answers and plain-English explanations. Browse the PDF, video and online mock test.
FP-C Flight Paramedic Prep Questions
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Q1You are responding to a remote location to assess an elderly patient who fell. She opens her eyes when you call her name, appears confused when speaking, and withdraws her hand when you apply pressure to her nail bed. What is this patient's GCS score?
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✓ Correct answer: 11 - E3, V4, M4
Answer: 11 - E3, V4, M4 The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses eye, verbal, and motor responses to evaluate consciousness levels. The patient opens her eyes to verbal command (score: 3), provides confused responses (score: 4), and withdraws from pain (score: 4). Adding these scores gives the GCS: $$3 + 4 + 4 = 11$$.
Q2Which of the following best describes the neuropathophysiology of a migraine headache?
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✓ Correct answer: The neuropathophysiology of migraine headaches is not fully understood
Answer: The neuropathophysiology of migraine headaches is not fully understood. Although many theories suggest that migraines might be caused by abnormal brain activity that affects nerve signals, chemicals, and blood vessels in the brain, the exact mechanisms remain unknown. Triggers may include environmental, genetic, and individual factors. Providers often attribute specific migraines to stress, hormonal changes, sensory stimuli, certain foods, and other factors. However, the complex biological processes leading to migraines are still being researched.
Q3Which type of intracerebral hemorrhage has the highest association with high morbidity and mortality following a traumatic brain injury?
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✓ Correct answer: Acute intracerebral hemorrhage
Answer: Acute intracerebral hemorrhage Intracerebral hemorrhage, which involves bleeding within the brain tissues, is often classified as acute, subacute, and chronic based on the onset and progression of symptoms. Acute intracerebral hemorrhage symptoms typically present within 24 hours of a traumatic brain injury and are associated with the highest rates of death and disability. This high mortality rate is linked to the rapid and severe increase in intracranial pressure (ICP) that occurs with acute hemorrhage. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is commonly used to assess the severity of neurological injury in these cases. A GCS score of less than 8 is associated with a mortality rate ranging from 50% to 90%. Subacute intracerebral hemorrhage symptoms appear between 2 to 10 days post-injury, while chronic intracerebral hemorrhage symptoms develop more than two weeks after the initial trauma. Prompt recognition and management are crucial to reducing the adverse outcomes linked with acute intracerebral hemorrhage.
Q4During a critical care flight of a four-year-old male patient weighing 20 kg, you need to administer midazolam intravenously. The medication concentration is 5 mg/mL and the recommended dosage is 0.1 mg/kg. How much volume (in mL) of midazolam should you administer? Medication Concentration (mg/mL) Recommended Dosage (mg/kg) Midazolam 5 0.1 Child Weight (kg) 20
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✓ Correct answer: 0.4 mL
Calculate total dose: 20 kg × 0.1 mg/kg = 2 mg. Calculate volume: 2 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL = 0.4 mL. Therefore administer 0.4 mL IV.
Q5You are providing care for a 70-year-old patient with asthma weighing 70 kg who is being transported via fixed-wing aircraft to a tertiary care center. Arterial blood gas: pH 7.35, $$PaCO_{2}$$ 45 mm Hg, $$PaO_{2}$$ 60 mm Hg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L. Current ventilator settings: SIMV, tidal volume (Vt) 550 mL, respiratory rate 14/min, PEEP 5 cm $$H_{2}O$$, $$FiO_{2}$$ 0.50. Which ventilator adjustment would best address the patient's hypoxemia?
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✓ Correct answer: Increase $$FiO_{2}$$ to 0.7
The patient is hypoxemic ($$PaO_{2}$$ 60 mm Hg) while on $$FiO_{2}$$ 0.50. The most direct initial intervention to improve oxygenation is to increase $$FiO_{2}$$. Increasing PEEP could improve oxygenation if there is alveolar collapse but may risk worsening dynamic hyperinflation in obstructive disease and is not the first step here. Increasing tidal volume is unnecessary for hypoxemia and can increase the risk of barotrauma.
Q6A patient on a ventilator receives a specific tidal volume that maintains open alveoli with each breath. However, some alveoli collapse due to a failure to sustain Positive End Expiratory Pressure (PEEP). This phenomenon is known as:
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✓ Correct answer: Cyclic atelectasis
Answer: Cyclic atelectasis Cyclic atelectasis is when a patient takes an inspiratory breath, causing the alveoli to open, but the alveoli are unable to maintain their open position with exhalation, immediately collapsing. This cycle repeats with each breath, potentially leading to both local and systemic inflammation within the lung. In ventilated patients, PEEP is used to prevent alveolar collapse during expiration and is most effective when combined with a set tidal volume to maintain alveolar recruitment during exhalation. Auto-PEEP is a physiologic event often seen in mechanically ventilated patients, particularly those with acute severe asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or those on inverse ratio ventilation. Physiological atelectasis is not an accurate term, as atelectasis is not a natural physiological process. Pathological atelectasis refers to any atelectasis caused by a disease process or bodily change.
Q7When using the Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA) for airway management in a prehospital setting, which is the most critical step to ensure it is correctly positioned?
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✓ Correct answer: Inflate the cuff and observe for chest rise and adequate ventilation
Answer: Inflate the cuff and observe for chest rise and adequate ventilation The Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA) is an essential tool in prehospital airway management, particularly when intubation is not feasible. The correct positioning of the LMA is confirmed by inflating the cuff and ensuring there is chest rise and adequate ventilation. Checking for its presence inside the mouth, lubrication, and rotating the LMA are important steps but do not confirm proper positioning.
Q8In which of the following situations should the rapid sequence induction (RSI) protocol not be used?
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✓ Correct answer: The patient is allergic to succinylcholine.
Answer: The patient is allergic to succinylcholine. RSI involves the use of paralytic agents like succinylcholine or rocuronium. If a patient has an allergy to succinylcholine, an alternative agent must be used, and the standard RSI protocol would not be appropriate. RSI is often indicated in patients with a full stomach to reduce the risk of aspiration, in patients with rapidly declining consciousness, or those with a GCS score of 8 or less who are unable to protect their own airway.
Q9Which of the following medications is most appropriate for sedation in a trauma patient that requires both pain relief and amnesia?
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✓ Correct answer: Ketamine
Answer: Ketamine Ketamine is a unique drug used for sedation, especially in trauma patients, because it provides both analgesia (pain relief) and amnesia. It works through dissociation of the thalamus and limbic system, making it highly effective during procedural sedation. Fentanyl provides strong analgesia and some sedation but does not induce amnesia. Etomidate and Propofol are primarily used for anesthesia but do not provide significant analgesia or amnesia.
Q10Each of the following are considered standard components of care in patients experiencing anaphylactic shock, except:
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✓ Correct answer: Administering antibiotics
Answer: Administering antibiotics The standard components of care for patients experiencing anaphylactic shock include the administration of epinephrine to counteract the severe allergic reaction, the administration of intravenous fluids to support blood pressure, and providing airway support to prevent asphyxiation. Administering antibiotics is not a standard component of immediate care during anaphylactic shock as it is primarily used to treat infections, not allergic reactions.
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