TheoryAST CST Practice Questions
Free AST CST practice questions with answers and plain-English explanations. Browse the PDF, video and online mock test.
AST CST Questions
Open each answer, read the explanation, then continue into the full practice flow.
Q1Which of the following is NOT one of the standards of clinical nursing practice directly related to the nursing process?
Show answer
✓ Correct answer: coordination
The standards of Clinical Nursing Practice are directly related to the nursing process. They include: assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation. These clinical standards use the steps of the nursing process to help achieve the ANA standards of professional performance.
Q2What is required for the insertion of a central venous pressure (CVP) catheter?
Show answer
✓ Correct answer: A sterile setup
To successfully insert a central venous pressure (CVP) catheter, a sterile setup is necessary. This is essential to prevent the introduction of any harmful bacteria or other contaminants into the patient's bloodstream. A sterile setup includes the use of sterile gloves, sterile drapes, sterile catheter insertion kit, and ensuring that all equipment and surfaces are properly sterilized.<br/><br/>Option B) A crash cart is incorrect. A crash cart is used in emergency situations to store medications, equipment, and supplies used during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). It is not directly related to the insertion of a CVP catheter.<br/><br/>Option C) An IV technician is incorrect. While it may be helpful to have an experienced IV technician present during the procedure, it is not a necessary step for a successful CVP catheter insertion. The responsibility of ensuring a sterile setup and proper insertion technique lies with the healthcare provider performing the procedure.<br/><br/>Option D) None of the above is incorrect. A sterile setup is required for a successful CVP catheter insertion, making option D an incorrect answer.<br/><br/>In summary, a successful CVP catheter insertion necessitates a sterile setup to minimize the risk of infection and ensure patient safety.
Q3Geriatric patients are particularly susceptible to the following conditions, with the exception of:
Show answer
✓ Correct answer: Gallbladder disease
Geriatric patients are particularly susceptible to various health conditions, but gallbladder disease is not typically one of them. As individuals age, their risk for certain conditions increases, so it is important to be aware of these vulnerabilities. However, gallbladder disease is not commonly associated with aging. <br/><br/>Option A (Infection) As individuals age, their immune system may weaken, making them more susceptible to infections. Infections can range from respiratory infections, urinary tract infections, to skin infections. It is crucial to monitor and treat infections promptly in geriatric patients to prevent complications.<br/><br/>Option B (Poor wound healing) Geriatric patients often have slower healing rates for wounds, whether it be surgical wounds, pressure ulcers, or simple cuts. The aging process affects the body's ability to repair and regenerate tissues, leading to delayed healing. Effective wound care is important to ensure proper healing and minimize the risk of infection.<br/><br/>Option C (Cardiovascular problems) Geriatric patients commonly experience cardiovascular problems such as high blood pressure, heart disease, and stroke. The aging process, along with factors such as lifestyle choices and genetics, contribute to the increased susceptibility to these conditions. Regular monitoring, lifestyle modifications, and appropriate medical interventions are necessary to manage cardiovascular health in older individuals.<br/><br/>It is important to understand the unique health challenges faced by geriatric patients in order to provide appropriate care and prevent further complications. While gallbladder disease is not a condition typically associated with geriatric patients, healthcare professionals should remain vigilant and address any health concerns promptly.
Q4Which statement best describes the active surgical hand scrub procedure?
Show answer
✓ Correct answer: Time or number of strokes, hand to elbow sequence
An active surgical hand scrub is a critical step in maintaining a sterile environment during surgery. It involves thoroughly cleaning the hands and forearms to eliminate any microorganisms that may be present.<br/><br/>Option A (Time, no anatomical sequence) is incorrect because it does not consider the importance of following a specific anatomical sequence during the scrub. The hand to elbow sequence ensures that all areas are properly cleaned, reducing the risk of contamination.<br/><br/>Option B (Number of strokes, no anatomical sequence) is also incorrect because it neglects the necessary anatomical sequence. Simply counting the number of strokes without following a specific pattern may result in missed areas or inadequate cleaning.<br/><br/>Option D (Number of strokes, elbow to hand sequence) is incorrect because it reverses the anatomical sequence. Starting from the elbow and moving towards the hand can lead to cross-contamination from areas that are already cleaned to areas that are still dirty.<br/><br/>The correct answer, C) Time or number of strokes, hand to elbow sequence, encapsulates the essential elements of an active surgical hand scrub. This ensures that each part of the hand and forearm is adequately cleaned through a systematic process, reducing the risk of surgical site infections.
Q5When is the flash sterilizer typically used?
Show answer
✓ Correct answer: Only when there is no other alternative is available
These sterilizers are typically located just outside the operating suite.<br/><br/>They are typically used only when there is no other alternative.<br/><br/>Unwrapped items coming from the immediate-use sterilizers will be wet because there is no drying cycle for unwrapped items.<br/><br/>The term flash sterilizer has been replaced with the term immediate-use sterilizer.
Q6Which stapler would be utilized for a laparoscopic procedure?
Show answer
✓ Correct answer: Endo GIA linear cutter
The endo GIA stapler is the only stapler that can be used endoscopically.
Q7Which of the following items is classified as a category I-Critical surgical item?
Show answer
✓ Correct answer: Internal defibrillator paddles
Internal defibrillator paddles are classified as a category I- Critical surgical item. These paddles are used during surgical procedures to deliver electric shocks to the heart in order to correct abnormal heart rhythms. They are considered critical because their proper functioning is crucial for the success of the surgical procedure and the patient's well-being.<br/><br/>Option A (ECG electrodes) ECG electrodes are devices used to record the electrical activity of the heart. Although they are important for monitoring heart function, they are not classified as category I- Critical surgical items. They are not directly involved in the surgical procedure and do not have a critical impact on patient outcomes.<br/><br/>Option B (Cystoscope) A cystoscope is a medical instrument used to examine the urethra and bladder. While it is a useful tool in urological procedures, it is not classified as a category I- Critical surgical item. Its failure or absence during surgery would not have a critical impact on patient outcomes.<br/><br/>Option D (Grounding pads) Grounding pads are adhesive pads placed on the patient's body to ensure proper electrical grounding during surgical procedures. While they play an important role in maintaining electrical safety, they are not classified as category I- Critical surgical items. Failure or absence of grounding pads may increase the risk of electrical injury but would not have a critical impact on patient outcomes.<br/><br/>In summary, the correct answer is C) Internal defibrillator paddles, as they are classified as a category I- Critical surgical item essential for the success and safety of surgical procedures involving the heart.
Q8Several dietary and lifestyle factors can either increase or decrease lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure. All of the following factors can increase lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure, EXCEPT:
Show answer
✓ Correct answer: fat
Dietary and lifestyle factors can have an impact on the pressure of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES). Some factors may increase LES pressure, while others may lower it. In this question, we are looking for the factor that does not increase LES pressure.<br/><br/>Option A) protein<br/>Protein is an essential nutrient that is found in foods such as meat, fish, poultry, dairy products, beans, and legumes. However, consuming protein-rich foods does not result in an increase in LES pressure. Protein is necessary for the growth and repair of tissues in the body and plays a role in various bodily functions, but it does not have a direct effect on LES pressure.<br/><br/>Option C) carbohydrates<br/>Carbohydrates are a major source of energy and are found in foods like bread, rice, pasta, fruits, and vegetables. Similar to protein, consuming carbohydrates does not increase LES pressure. Carbohydrates are broken down into sugars during digestion, but this does not have a direct impact on LES pressure.<br/><br/>Option D) nonfat milk<br/>Nonfat milk refers to milk that has had the fat content removed. While it is often recommended as a lower-fat alternative to whole milk, consuming nonfat milk does not increase LES pressure. However, it is important to note that milk, especially whole milk, can increase LES pressure in some individuals.
Q9Which of the following is a common incision for gynecological surgeries?
Show answer
✓ Correct answer: Pfannenstiel
A Pfannenstiel incision is a common incision for gynecological surgeries, including C-sections. Also known as a Kerr incision or a Pfannenstiel-Kerr, it allows access to the abdomen.
Q10While administering blood products during a surgical procedure, the nurse immediately observes that the patient has developed a sudden fever of 101 degrees Fahrenheit, exhibiting flushed skin and an elevated heart rate. <br/><br/>What should be the nurse's initial response?
Show answer
✓ Correct answer: Stop the transfusion and notify the physician.
When a patient develops a sudden fever of 101 degrees Fahrenheit, flushed skin, and an elevated heart rate during the administration of blood products, it could indicate a transfusion reaction. A transfusion reaction is a potentially serious complication that needs immediate attention. The nurse's initial response should be to stop the transfusion to prevent further complications. Additionally, notifying the physician is crucial to ensure appropriate medical intervention and management. Prompt action is necessary to protect the patient's well-being and prevent any potential harm.<br/><br/>Option A (Administer oxygen by non-rebreather mask at 10L/min): While administering oxygen is an essential intervention in certain situations, such as respiratory distress or hypoxemia, it is not the appropriate initial response when a patient develops a sudden fever, flushed skin, and an elevated heart rate during a blood transfusion. Oxygen administration may not address the underlying cause of these symptoms and may delay appropriate action.<br/><br/>Option B (Call the Blood Bank to verify labeling of the blood products): While it is important to verify the labeling of blood products for patient safety, it is not the nurse's initial response in this scenario. The patient's acute symptoms indicate a more urgent need to stop the transfusion and notify the physician. Verifying the labeling can be done after ensuring the patient's immediate safety and well-being.<br/><br/>Option C (Check the patient’s chart to ensure the orders are correct): While it is crucial to ensure correct orders and chart documentation, it is not the nurse's initial response in this situation. The sudden onset of fever, flushed skin, and an elevated heart rate during a blood transfusion indicates a possible transfusion reaction. Stopping the transfusion and notifying the physician should be the initial response to address the patient's immediate needs.<br/><br/>In conclusion, the nurse's initial response when observing a sudden fever of 101 degrees Fahrenheit, flushed skin, and an elevated heart rate during a blood transfusion should be to stop the transfusion and notify the physician. This response prioritizes patient safety and prompt medical intervention.
Full AST CST bank + unlimited mocks
Try 30 questions free. Unlock the complete AST CST question bank, every explanation, and unlimited timed mock exams. Practice on any device.
Unlock AST CST →