Utah Security Guard
Practice Test

A. Utah Department of Public Safety, Highway Patrol Division

B. Utah Division of Occupational and Professional Licensing (DOPL) ✓

C. Utah Attorney General's Office

D. Utah County Sheriff's Association

Correct — B. The Utah Division of Occupational and Professional Licensing (DOPL) oversees the licensing of private security officers under Utah Code Title 58. All applicants must meet DOPL requirements before working as a licensed security guard.

A. Using the maximum amount of force available to ensure control

B. Using only the amount of force that is proportional and necessary to address the immediate threat ✓

C. Matching exactly what the aggressor does, move for move

D. Avoiding all physical contact under any circumstances

Correct — B. Reasonable force is force proportionate to the threat presented—no more and no less than necessary. Using excessive force exposes the officer to criminal assault charges and civil battery claims regardless of whether the subject was acting unlawfully.

A. A police officer's delegated powers

B. The authority granted by the state legislature to all citizens

C. The property owner's or employer's permission and applicable law ✓

D. Federal law enforcement statutes

Correct — C. Private security officers derive their authority from the property owner or employer who hires them, combined with the same rights held by any private citizen under state law. They do not hold police powers unless also commissioned as peace officers.

A. A model showing escalating levels of officer response proportional to subject behavior ✓

B. A checklist that must be followed in exact order during every incident

C. A document requiring supervisory approval before force is used

D. A guideline that applies only to armed security officers

Correct — A. The use-of-force continuum is a conceptual framework illustrating escalating levels of response—from officer presence and verbal commands through physical control techniques—matched to the subject's level of resistance or threat. It is a guideline, not a rigid sequential checklist.

A. Observe and report suspicious activity to the appropriate authority ✓

B. Apprehend and detain all suspected criminals on the property

C. Issue citations for violations of state law

D. Conduct undercover investigations on behalf of the police

Correct — A. The cornerstone duty of an unarmed security guard is to observe and report. Guards deter crime through presence and documentation, then relay information to law enforcement rather than taking direct enforcement action.

A. Only after physical force has already been used

B. Never—it signals weakness to an aggressor

C. Whenever it is safe to do so, before resorting to physical force ✓

D. Only when instructed by a supervisor via radio

Correct — C. De-escalation—using calm communication, distance, and non-threatening body language to reduce tension—should be the first approach whenever safety permits. It often resolves situations without the need for physical force and reduces legal risk.

A. They suspect the person may commit a crime in the future

B. A police officer verbally instructs them to do so from across the street

C. The person looks suspicious but has not yet acted unlawfully

D. A public offense is committed or attempted in the private person's presence ✓

Correct — D. Utah Code § 77-7-3 allows a private person to arrest someone when a public offense is committed or attempted in the private person's presence. Mere suspicion or future intent does not authorize a citizen arrest.

A. Keep the cuffs on as tightly as possible to prevent escape

B. Remove the handcuffs immediately since the person is now calm

C. Apply a second set of handcuffs for extra security

D. Monitor the subject's condition and check the cuffs for appropriate tightness—two-finger rule ✓

Correct — D. After restraint, officers must ensure handcuffs are not applied so tightly that they cut off circulation (the 'two-finger rule'—two fingers should fit between cuff and wrist). Continuing to monitor the subject prevents medical complications and reduces liability.